Is pathology a valid excuse? --- This sentence would seem to infer (please note my "softening device" by saying "would seem" ;-) that, in the case of tyranny, since it is a pathology, the actions of the tyrant are not expressions of rudeness - is this a correct reading? If so, I must beg to differ: Whether due to a pathology or not, a tyrant´s failure to acknowledge the other party, in my opinion, must be universally perceived as an expression of rudeness and cannot be an excuse for their actions.

Source author: Christian Peter Clay Mendoza cclay@sre.gob.mx