Is the alleged insult in the eye of the beholder? --- Assume President Trump refused to shake Speaker Pelosi’s hand. Was it an intentional insult? Does the intentional refusal justify tearing up the speech? Are the respective displays of disrespect comparable and excusable by either party? In both cases the handshake refusal and tearing up the speech do not negate either response but illustrate the bad faith of both parties.

Assume, as some argue, that Trump was in the process of turning and did not see the extended hand? Did Pelosi know this was a refusal; that is, did she know he saw her extended hand? Some certainly believe that Trump did not see.

Was there sufficient bad blood between Trump and Pelosi that provides a context for interpreting the dynamics?

The belief in Pelosi's mind was that the act of refusal was patently and intentionally insulting. Based solely on this video, amongst both parties, the evidence for or against an overt insult by Trump is moot.

Source author: John D. Hipsley jhipsley@igc.org